📰 Source: 4chan | /pol/

✍️ Original author: Anonymous

⬆️ score: 222

Why do Christians claim that Jews only became rich and powerful after the French revolution? Anyone who knows anything about history knows this is not true.

Jews began amassing and compounding wealth as soon as Christianity became dominant in Europe.

How did they do this? Christcuck kings gave jews a monopoly on usury. Jews were the ONLY people allowed to lend at interest.

• England - Aaron of Lincoln (d. 1186) – Wealthy banker and financier throughout the Angevin Empire. He was the wealthiest man in 12th-century England, having more money than the king himself. He financed many wars, such as Strongbow’s invasion of Ireland.

Benedict of York (d. 1189) – Another rich moneylender. He was close to King Richard I and attended his coronation. Debts to him were still being paid even a decade after his death.

Licoricia of Winchester (d. 1277) – Rich Jewish woman who gave loans to the king.

• France - Isaac the Jew (d. 836) – Became a wealthy merchant before being promoted to one of Charlemagne’s top diplomats. Amassed extreme wealth over his life.

Abraham of Saragossa (d. 9th century) – He was born in Muslim-controlled Spain, but eventually moved and settled in the kingdom of the Franks. There he received (around 835) a privilegium from Louis the Pious, one of the three extant privileges granted to Jewish merchants by a Carolingian monarch. It became the standard for succeeding privileges, including the following aspects: court oaths and trial procedures, services and representation, right to trade, and imperial protection. According to this privilege, Abraham entrusted himself to the emperor in a manner similar to a royal vassal.

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